Every mortage calculator i use comes up with a
payment of $702.79, Chase has a payment of 705.34.
I have two models that come close to explaining the disparity. And the
correct answer could be a combination of the two, possibly in concert with
my speculation elsewhere in this thread that the exact interest rate is
something other than 5.210% (at least anywhere between 5.2095% and
5.21049...9%).
1. The refinance points and any other up-front fees total about $238.83,
and
they were taken out of the first monthly payment.
In that case, the regular payment can be computed by the following:
=ROUND(PMT(5.21%/12,120,-(65623 + 238.83*(1-5.21%/12))), 2)
That does result in $705.34.
Likewise, the last payment can be computed by the following:
=ROUNDUP(FV(5.21%/12,119,705.34,-(65623 + 238.83*(1-5.21%/12))) *
(1+5.21%/12), 2)
That does result in $704.69.
2. The first monthly payment includes some days of interest in addition to
the usual month between the loan origination date and the first payment.
For example, suppose the loan origination date is 9/20/2009 and the first
payment is due on 11/15/2009. Thus, the loan would accrue an additional
25
days of interest, which would be taken out of the first payment.
If the annual interest rate is actually about 5.211510706% [*] applied
monthly, the regular payment would indeed be $705.34 with a last payment
of
$704.69.
The regular and last payments can be computed in a manner similar to the
formulas in #1, substituting the correct interest rate and replacing
238.83
with the expression (1-r/12)*65623*25*r/365, where "r" is the correct
interest rate.
[*] Elsewhere in this thread, I mentioned that I believe the US "Truth
in Lending" regulations permit the actual interest rate to be within +/-
0.125 percent points of the documented interest rate. However, it seems
unlikely to me that a lender like Chase would do that; and my
interpretation
could be wrong, since it seems surprising in this day and age.
As I mentioned elsewhere in this thread, the best source for a dispositive
answer is the lender.
But the scenarios above might jar your memory of facts that you have not
mentioned yet -- or conditions that you can refute.
----- original message -----
Every mortage calculator i use comes up with a payment of $702.79,
Chase has a payment of 705.34.
Loan $65,623.00
Interest 5.210%
10 year fix
119 payments of 705.34
120th payment of 704.69
No taxes or insurance on loan.
I don't have a schedule from the bank, but when I figuer the
Amortization Schedule my last payment is hundreds of dollars off..
Thanks for helping.
Bob
I refinance my house at a lower interest rate,
I made a amortization schedule but I'm not
comming up with what Chase Bank has.
If you post the terms of the refinance and what Chase has come up (at
least
a few months), I'm sure we can help you. By "terms", I mean: points
and
any other up-front fees, new rate, current balance, new term of loan
(months), payment (as Chase determined it), payment frequency
(monthly?),
and additional fees paid with the each payment (e.g. PMI).
Balance *0.0521/365*31 = new balance
Is this correct?
Probably not. If anything, that only computes the interest for a period
of
31 days. But your formula is probably not correct even for that.
If you are trying to compute the outstanding balance after monthly
payment,
the correct formula is:
newBalance = prevBalance * (1 + monthlyIntRate) - payment
where monthlyIntRate is usually annualRate/12. "Payment" is whatever
the
bank determines, based on its policies.
----- original message -----
Thanks for reading
I refinance my house at a lower interest rate, I made a amortization
schedule but I'm not comming up with what Chase Bank has.
Here's how I figures it.
Balance *0.0521/365*31 = new balance
Is this correct?
Thanks
Bob