A
Anand
Hello,
Using an A2k Database. Have a BOM table containing a primary key combined by
two columns - BOMID and RevNo. The RevNo column is to track revisions to the
BOM table. The system increments the RevNo column after each revision. The
BOMID column remains the same for all revisions.
The system works fine till I create child tables based on the BOM Table (For
eg. a Purchase Order Table). The child table references both BOMID and RevNo
as foreign keys. When a user revises a BOM the child record - referencing an
earlier revision - 'disappears' from reports. It does not stand to business
logic that a minor change in a BOM record (say, a change in Dwg Code which
does not affect the PO Table) means the Purchase Orders raised for the BOM
record become invalid and must be re-created or re-assigned the correct
foreign key.
Is there any way to work around this problem. What happens in Access is
technically correct but leads to practical difficulties.
TIA
Anand
Using an A2k Database. Have a BOM table containing a primary key combined by
two columns - BOMID and RevNo. The RevNo column is to track revisions to the
BOM table. The system increments the RevNo column after each revision. The
BOMID column remains the same for all revisions.
The system works fine till I create child tables based on the BOM Table (For
eg. a Purchase Order Table). The child table references both BOMID and RevNo
as foreign keys. When a user revises a BOM the child record - referencing an
earlier revision - 'disappears' from reports. It does not stand to business
logic that a minor change in a BOM record (say, a change in Dwg Code which
does not affect the PO Table) means the Purchase Orders raised for the BOM
record become invalid and must be re-created or re-assigned the correct
foreign key.
Is there any way to work around this problem. What happens in Access is
technically correct but leads to practical difficulties.
TIA
Anand